Genesis 6:9 reads:
Noah was a righteous man, the only blameless man living in the region at that time, and he walked in close fellowship with God.
How is that possible? After all, Romans 3:23 tells us that
every single person has sinned and fallen short of God's glorious standards.
I see a contradiction between these two verses. "To sin" means "to miss the mark." It was originally a term in archery to refer to the act of an arrow missing its target. In this context, it refers to falling short of the standards set. Logically, then, if some person "missed the mark," he would be with blame, and any person who is blameless must be without sin. It is quite clear, then, that one of these two verse must be wrong, thereby negating sola scriptura. That leaves two possibilities to reconcile the Bible:
- Noah was not blameless. This is not likely, because it quite clearly states that he was blameless, without sin. Also, his story was written by a third party who has no motive to lie.
- Paul was wrong. This is fairly likely. After all, Paul was a man attempting to justify his own shortcomings. There is indeed a motive to stretch the truth.
Many churches teach that Jesus is the only perfect person, but their own book contradicts them. This does not mean Jesus' life was insignificant, but it does indicate that many teachings about him need to be reevaluated.
Another proof that Noah was a sinless man living after the Fall is his apparent close fellowship with God. Allegedly, God abhors sin and cannot be in its presence. However, Noah fellowshipped and walked with God, therefore he must have lived without sin.
Noah was not the only sinless person in the Bible apart from Jesus, either. In fact, the Old Testament is riddled with perfection. Enoch and Job are just two other examples to speak of...
How would you reconcile these seemingly opposing verses?

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